Solved MCQs Questions and Answers: April 2016

AIMA Assignment for Research Methodology (GM07)

AIMA Second Semester Assignments

Research Methodology (GM07)

Note: The answers are boldly marked

Question 1:- Rankings of teams in a tournament constitutes which of the following scales?

a) Nominal scale

b) Interval scale

c) Ratio scale

d) Ordinal scale

Question 2:- Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of secondary data?

a) The objectives, nature, and methods used to collect the secondary data may not be appropriate to the present situation

b) Secondary data may be lacking in accuracy

c) Secondary data may be expensive and time consuming

d) Secondary data may not be completely current or dependable

Question 3:- Which of the following statement is correct about the value of 'Mode' for a set of observations?

a) It is the value that occurs minimum number of times in a distribution and around which other items are scarcely distributed.

b) It is the value that occurs maximum number of times in a distribution and around which other items are densely distributed.

c) It is the least typical of a series of values.

d) It is the value that occurs minimum number of times in a distribution and around which other items are densely distributed.

Question 4:- What is the difference between induction and deduction methods of drawing conclusions from observed data?

a) In the induction method, one starts with observed data and then generalization is done whereas deductive reasoning starts from some general law and is then applied to a particular instance

b) In the induction method, one starts with from some general law and then moves on to a particular instance whereas deductive reasoning starts starts with observed data and then is generalized

c) Both induction and deduction methods of drawing conclusions from observed data are identical and can be used interchangeably

Question 5:- What is the advantage of probability sampling over non-probability sampling?

a) It is unbiased

b) Quantification is easily possible in probability sampling

c) Less knowledge of the universe is sufficient in probability sampling

d) All of the above

Question 6:- Which of the following specify the set of response alternatives as well as the response format?

a) Filter questions

b) Structured questions

c) Unstructured questions

d) Branching questions

Question 7:- Which of the following statements is true as far as deliberate sampling technique is concerned?

a) Sample is obtained by conscious selection of various items by the investigator

b) If the investigator is knowledgeable about the population, estimates obtained using deliberate sampling are likely to be much better than estimates derived using random samples

c) Results of deliberate sampling are likely to be strongly affected by personal prejudices and bias of the investigator

d) All of the above

Question 8:- A random variable is said to be discrete if:

a) It can assume any value within a given interval

b) It can be represented graphically

c) It follows the rules of probability

d) its outcomes are countable

Question 9:- All of the followings are non-probability sampling methods, except:

a) Deliberate Sampling

b) Quota Sampling

c) Roulette Wheel Method

d) Convenience Sampling

Question 10:- What is meant by analysis and interpretation of data?

a) Analysis of data involves organizing the data in a particular manner whereas interpretation of data is a method for deriving conclusions from analyzed data

b) Interpretation of data involves organizing the data in a particular manner whereas analysis of data is a method for deriving conclusions from interpreted data

c) Both analysis and interpretation of data refer to the same activity wherein data is organized in a particular manner and then used for arriving at appropriate conclusions

d) None of the above

Question 11:- Processing of data involves:

a) Editing data

b) Coding data

c) Tabulating data

d) All of the above

Question 12:- Sorting and counting, and summarizing of data form a part of which activity?

a) Editing data

b) Tabulation of data

c) Coding data

d) All of the above

Question 13:- All of the following are measures of central tendency except:

a) Range

b) Median

c) Mode

d) Mean

Question 14:- A research method in which the researcher does not depend on the respondent and the latter does not participate in the research process is known as:

a) Experimental study

b) Descriptive study

c) Observation method

d) Case study

Question 15:- What is a double-barreled question?

a) An open-ended question that respondents may answer in their own words

b) A question that attempts to cover two issues

c) A question wherein the researcher seems to be presenting a bias

d) A question where the respondent is only able to select 'Yes' or 'No' for the answer

Question 16:- If the mean, mode and median for a distribution all equal 50, we can easily infer that the distribution is:

a) Multi-modal

b) Skewed to the left

c) Skewed to the right

d) Symmetric

Question 17:- Snowball sampling is the most appropriate when:

a) The sample is to be drawn from small, specialized populations

b) The sample is to be drawn from a large, homogeneous population

c) The sample is to be drawn from a large, heterogeneous population

d) All of the above

Question 18:- The choice between non-probability and probability samples should be based on all of the following considerations EXCEPT:

a) Nature of the research

b) Relative magnitude of non-sampling versus sampling errors

c) Size of the population

d) Variability in the population

Question 19:- Which of the following most appropriately defines 'Exclusive Method' for designation of class limits in a grouped frequency distribution?

a) The upper limit of a class is taken to be equal to lower limit of the following class.

b) All observations with a value greater than or equal to the lower limit and less than or equal to the upper limit are included in a class.

c) All observations with a value greater than the lower limit and less than or equal to the upper limit are included in a class.

d) All of the above

Question 20:- If the mean of a distribution is greater than the median, then:

a) The distribution is skewed to the left

b) The distribution is skewed to the right

c) The distribution is symmetric

d) There is not enough information to determine shape of the distribution

Question 21:- Which of the following is an example of a continuous random variable?

a) The number of cars on the road

b) The weight of a bag of wheat

c) The number of repairs at a computer shops over the course of the month

d) The total runs scored in a cricket game

Question 22:- Which of the following is a correct statement with respect to the arithmetic mean of given data?

a) The sum of deviations of observations from their arithmetic mean is never 0.

b) The sum of squares of deviations is maximum when taken from their arithmetic mean.

c) If a constant value is added to every observation, the arithmetic mean gets multiplied by the same value.

d) The sum of squares of deviations is minimum when taken from their arithmetic mean.

Question 23:- A researcher wants to select a systematic random sample of 100 people from among a group of 1000 candidates. Which of the following procedures would help him/her accomplish this?

a) Put the names of all 1000 people in a hat, and select 100 of them randomly.

b) Arrange all the people by their names in an alphabetical order, and select the first 100.

c) Arrange all the people by their heights in an ascending order, and select the first 100.

d) Start with a randomly selected individual, and then select every 10th person for inclusion in the sample group.

Question 24:- Which of the following is not a probabilistic sampling design technique?

a) Stratified sampling

b) Quota sampling

c) Cluster sampling

d) Systematic sampling

Question 25:- Which of the following formulae correctly represents the relationship among mean, median and mode for a frequency distribution?

a) Mode = 2 * Mean - 3 * Median

b) Mode = 2 * Median - 3 * Mean

c) Mode = 3 * Mean - 2 * Median

d) Mode + 2 * Mean = 3 * Median

Question 26:- Which of the following is used to describe qualitative (categorical) data?

a) Scatter Plot

b) Histogram

c) Pie Chart

d) Box Plot

Question 27:- A professor needs to select a volunteer for a community support project. Which of the following would NOT be an example of a simple random sample?

a) He chooses a number between 0 and 99. The student whose auto operator license number has the last two digits closest to the one the professor has chosen is selected

b) He chooses that individual whose name is first in alphabetical order

c) He puts all student names in a bowl, mixes them up, and selects one

d) He has each student select a number between 0 and 99 and write it down. He then selects the student whose number is closest to the last two digits of his social security number

Question 28:- What is the major difference in objectives between cluster sampling and stratified sampling?

a) The main objective of cluster sampling is to increase precision whereas the main objective of stratified sampling is to reduce costs by increasing sampling efficiency.

b) The main objective of cluster sampling is to reduce costs by increasing sampling efficiency whereas the main objective of stratified sampling is to increase precision.

c) There is no difference in objectives between cluster sampling and stratified sampling. Both sampling techniques are aimed at reducing costs by increasing sampling efficiency.

d) There is no difference in objectives between cluster sampling and stratified sampling. Both sampling techniques are aimed at increasing precision.

Question 29:- When testing a hypothesis, if the consequence of rejecting the Null Hypothesis is very serious, what should be done?

a) Conduct the test using a very small level of significance

b) Insist that the P-value be smaller than the level of significance

c) Conduct the test using a very large level of significance

d) Insist that the level of significance be smaller than the P-value

Question 30:- What is snowball sampling?

a) It is a non-probability sampling technique in which the initial group of respondents is chosen randomly, and subsequent respondents are selected based on referrals provided by the initial respondents

b) It is a non-probability sampling technique in which the initial group of respondents is nominated by the researcher , and subsequent respondents are selected based on referrals provided by the initial respondents

c) It is a probability sampling technique in which the initial group of respondents is nominated by the researcher , and subsequent respondents are selected based on referrals provided by the initial respondents

d) It is a probability sampling technique in which the initial group of respondents is chosen randomly, and subsequent respondents are selected based on referrals provided by the initial respondents

AIMA Assignment for Human Resource Management (HR01)

AIMA second semster assignments

Human Resource Management (HR01)

Note: The answers are boldly marked

Question 1:- Development is distinguished from training, in that

a) development focuses on individuals gaining new capabilities useful for both present and future jobs

b) development cannot be measured or quantified, whereas training can

c) training is used mostly for management positions

d) development provides people with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use on their present jobs

Question 2:- “Compensation linked to individual, team, and/or organization performance” is a definition of

a) compa-pay

b) benefits

c) executive perquisites

d) variable pay

Question 3:- What should an organization do if it wants to enhance the relationships between training, learning, and job performance?

a) Give the trainees a pre-training test and post-training test to measure their learning from the training.

b) Give the trainees a real business problem to solve as part of their training.

c) Offer interactive e-learning as a training method.

d) Outsource the training to subject matter experts

Question 4:- Job fairs are primarily useful for

a) identifying who is currently on the job market

b) filling a large number of jobs quickly

c) assessing the current state of the labor market

d) comparing compensation packages with competing firms

Question 5:- The main legal reason for performing a thorough background check of all applicants is

a) to comply with equal employment opportunity requirements

b) to undercover resume fraud

c) to verify a candidate’s criminal history

d) to avoid a negligent hiring charge

Question 6:- What is a primary advantage of recruiting through professional and trade associations?

a) Firms can gain access to specialized professionals needed in an industry.

b) Firms can obtain competitors’ secrets.

c) Individuals hired from competitors have enhanced motivation because they have decided to take another position in the same industry.

d) Firms can hire candidates at more competitive salaries.

Question 7:- Which of the following statements is true about using the Internet for recruiting?

a) Employers have found the use of internet recruiting is a way to save on cost.

b) It is an easy way to find interested, qualified candidates.

c) Internet recruiting has not lived up to its expectations.

d) HR staff has found that internet recruiting has reduced their workloads.

Question 8:- involves fitting a person to the right job.

a) Placement

b) Interviewing

c) Selection

d) Staffing

Question 9:- More than anything else, placement of human resources should be seen as a/an

a) Public relations activity

b) Line management responsibility

c) Matching process

d) HR unit responsibility

Question 10:- Individual-centered career planning focuses on

a) The individual's responsibility for a career rather than on organizational needs

b) The career ladder for that employee

c) The individual’s place on a succession chart

d) The internal opportunities for career advancement

Question 11:- A system that tracks prospects in the company and matches them with jobs as they come open is called

a) Resume mining

b) Internal mobility

c) Applicant tracking

d) Employer career websites

Question 12:- A/An is a characteristic that a person must possess to successfully perform work.

a) Validator

b) Essential element

c) Selection criterion

d) Predictor

Question 13:- The purpose of a/an is to obtain additional information on a candidate and to clarify information gathered throughout the selection process.

a) Polygraph test

b) Application form

c) Selection interview

d) Reference check

Question 14:- A recruiter who uses a candidate’s experience, test scores, education, and work references in the selection process is evaluating

a) Multiple predictors of selection criteria

b) Selection criteria for employee characteristics

c) Selection criteria for multiple hurdles

d) Multiple hurdles of selection criteria

Question 15:- Training can be evaluated through a cost-benefit analysis, which consists of each of the following steps except:

a) Determine training costs

b) Identify potential savings results

c) Conduct costs and savings benefit comparisons

d) Benchmark the results against that in other organizations

Question 16:- Which of the following is not a purpose of the application form?

a) It is used to determine whether the applicant can perform the essential functions of the job.

b) It can be used for research on the effectiveness of the selection process.

c) It is a record of the applicant’s desire to obtain a position.

d) It provides the interviewer with a profile of the applicant.

Question 17:- Which of the following is an assumption of variable-pay systems?

a) Some jobs contribute more to organizational success than others.

b) Time spent each day is the primary measure of short-term contributions.

c) Differences in individual contributions to the organization are recognized through different base pay levels.

d) Length of time with the organization is the primary differentiating factor among people.

Question 18:- One of the main objectives that organizations have for pay-for-performance plans is to

a) Punish lower-performing employees

b) Achieve HR objectives such as increasing retention and rewarding safety

c) Justify higher rates of pay for higher-performing individuals

d) encourage a greater degree of teamwork within the organization

Question 19:- The purpose of pre-employment screening is to

a) Provide a realistic job preview

b) Encourage potential job candidates to explain how they are qualified for the job

c) Determine if applicants meet the minimum qualifications for open jobs

d) Obtain information for an EEO report

Question 20:- Tests that assess an individual’s ability to perform in a specific manner are called

a) Aptitude tests

b) Knowledge tests

c) Ability tests

d) Behavioral tests

Question 21:- Cognitive ability tests measure an individual’s

a) Abilities such as strength, endurance, and muscular movement

b) Thinking, memory, reasoning, and verbal and mathematical abilities

c) Ability to perform in a specific manner

d) Dexterity, hand-eye coordination, and arm-hand steadiness

Question 22:- Organizations who are looking for the most rigorous training evaluation should use the _______________ design.

a) Post-measure

b) Pre/post b measure without a control group

c) Pre-/post-measure with a control group

d) Benchmarking

Question 23:- In a structured interview,

a) All candidates meet in the same room with the same interviewer

b) A set of standardized questions are asked of all job applicants

c) Each candidate appears before a panel of interviewers

d) Computers are used to devise a set of questions

Question 24:- A talented recruiter will effectively interview the job candidate, which consists of all of the following except

a) asking clear, closed-ended questions

b) planning what information to collect from the candidate

c) stopping the interview when all necessary information has been collected

d) identify specific areas for questioning

Question 25:- "The planned introduction of new employees to their jobs, coworkers, and the organization" is a definition of

a) orientation

b) organizational entry

c) employee development organizational entry

d) socialization

Question 26:- When an employer becomes aware that a current employee may be a risk to the safety of other employees, the employer may face a charge of _______________ if they continue to employ that person.

a) negligent hiring

b) negligent retention

c) wrongful employment

d) wrongful discharge

Question 27:- is concerned with enhancing the attraction, development, and retention of key human resources.

a) Talent management

b) Staffing

c) Organizational development

d) Strategic training

Question 28:- provides employees with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use in their present jobs.

a) Orientation

b) Learning

c) Employee development

d) Training

Question 29:- There are 16 training programs which Brian, the director of training, wishes to implement during the coming year. After examining his training budget, Brian realizes he will not be able to conduct all of these training efforts and he must prioritize them in order to reduce the number. Brian should prioritize these training programs based on

a) the richness of program criteria

b) the number of requests he has had from employees and managers for certain types of training

c) the cost per trainee of the programs

d) organizational performance goals

Question 30:- When identifying organizational needs, which of the following is not one of the questions that a good training plan deals with?

a) Is there a need for training?

b) Is there a budget for training?

c) Who will do the training?

d) How will the knowledge be transferred to the job?

AIMA Assignment Entrepreneurial Management GM13

AIMA Fourth Semster Assignments

Entrepreneurial Management GM13

NOTE: The answers are boldly marked.

Question 1:- Which one of the following is NOT an important activity of Business Plan in a new venture?

a) Background of the Entrepreneur

b) Functional Plan

c) Industry Analysis

d) Company Name

Question 2:- “High potential venture” :

a) Has the same growth potential as a life style firm

b) Starts out like a life style firm

c) Draws the interest of private investors only

d) None of the above

Question 3:- A business center that offers working space and specialized support for new ventures is called:

a) Isolator

b) Injector

c) Incubator

d) Integrator

Question 4:- A network entrepreneur is an individual who identifies his or her business idea

a) On their own

b) Through the assistance of a paid consultant

c) Through social contacts

d) With one or more partners

Question 5:- Banks are usually reluctant to give loan to the

a) Private Limited Companies

b) Partnership Firm

c) Public Limited Company

d) Sole Proprietor

Question 6:- Competitive Model coined by?

a) Michael E. Porter

b) Peter F Drucker

c) Philip Kotler

d) Koontz

Question 7:- If an entrepreneur has an internal locus of control, this means that he/she:

a) Has a high need for achievement

b) Feels comfortable in an unstructured situation

c) Believes that success or failure depends on his/her own actions

d) Believes fate is a powerful force

Question 8:- If someone starts a new business that is a service station, this is an example of a(n):

a) New concept/new business.

b) Existing concept/new business

c) Existing concept/existing business

d) New concept/existing business

Question 9:- Kumar Manglam Birla is what type of Entrepreneur?

a) Founder

b) Pure Entrepreneur

c) Technical Entrepreneur

d) Second Generation Entrepreneur

Question 10:- Newspapers, business periodicals, trade journals, and government publications are:

a) Sources of information on economic opportunities.

b) Sources of news but not economic data

c) Poor sources for research because the information is too brief.

d) All of the above

Question 11:- The _______ plan should contain control points to ascertain progress

a) Business

b) Marketing

c) Operational

d) Financial

Question 12:- The entrepreneur must possess the abilities

a) Creative

b) Conceptualization

c) Understanding Environment

d) All of the above

Question 13:- The increase in home businesses has occurred for several reasons. Which of the following is one of the reasons?

a) The increase in utility prices

b) The increase in tax rates

c) The increasing use of the Internet

d) Fewer people seeking financial security

Question 14:- The practice of using outside firms to perform tasks that could be performed internally is called:

a) Flexibility

b) Fragmentation

c) Greening

d) Outsourcing

Question 15:- The process of gathering information about trends is called:

a) Need for achievement

b) Tenacity

c) Neuroticism

d) Scanning the environment

Question 16:- The relationship between firms and new markets is:

a) New firms must establish new markets

b) New firms usually establish new markets

c) New firms seldom establish new markets

d) New firms never establish new markets

Question 17:- User innovation is:

a) Less likely than manufacturer innovation

b) More difficult to manage than other types of innovation

c) When the developer expects to benefit by using it

d) When the developer expects to benefit by selling it

Question 18:- What are the four types of Innovation?

a) Extension, Invention, Synthesis, Duplication

b) Invention, Duplication, Copying, Extension

c) Duplication, Invention, Creativity, Extension

d) None of the above

Question 19:- Which of the following inputs is NOT involved in entrepreneurship?

a) Opportunity

b) Proactive individual(s)

c) External locus of control

d) Risk

Question 20:- Which of the following is a method of selling goods to another country through a person in the entrepreneur’s home country?

a) Trading

b) Direct Export

c) Indirect Export

d) Domestic Sales

Question 21:- Which of the following is idea generation method that focuses on parameters?

a) Brainstorming

b) Reverse brainstorming

c) Creative problem solving

d) Synoptic

Question 22:- Which of the following is the career solution for many underemployed managers?

a) Fortune 500 companies

b) Entrepreneurship

c) Downsizing

d) To remain unemployed

Question 23:- Which one is not the process of creativity?

a) Incubation

b) Validation

c) Idea Generation

d) Establish Vision

Question 24:- Which one of the following is alternatively called corporate venturing?

a) Entrepreneurship

b) Intrapreneurship

c) Act of stating a new venture

d) Offering new products by an existing company

Question 25:- Which one of the following is required to develop a good team for creating something new?

a) Relationship with team members

b) Open discussion

c) Non flexible behavior

d) Discouragement of team member’s ideas

Question 26:- Which one of the following is the first step in the entrepreneurial process?

a) Developing successful business ideas

b) Deciding to become an entrepreneur

c) Growing the entrepreneurial firm

d) Moving from an idea to an entrepreneurial firm

Question 27:- Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and Development Process?

a) Idea Stage

b) Product Planning Stage

c) Product Development Stage

d) Test Marketing Stage

Question 28:- Which one of the following may need the business plan?

a) Employees

b) Investors

c) Advisors

d) All of the above

Question 29:- Which two work environments should be good for spawning the new enterprises?

a) Finance and marketing

b) Finance and R&D

c) Marketing and R&D

d) Marketing and IT

Question 30:- Which type of franchisee has a great deal of autonomy and considerable freedom?

a) Business-format franchisee

b) Product franchisee

c) Manufacturing franchisee

d) Manufacturer's representative